Analysis of the movie Seven Years in Tibet Essay

Analysis of the movie Seven Years in Tibet - Essay Example We see a cold, harsh man at the beginning of the film –a man who doesn’t want the son he and his wife are expecting and goes off to conquer a mountain in the Himalayas– turned into a human being, someone we can respect and trust, even as the Dalai Lama shows him respect and trust, considering him to be not only worthy of looking up to in some ways, but also to be a friend. The transformation comes about through a series events, the most important of which is the contact with the people and culture of Lhasa, where Heinrich and his friend Peter -after having endured hardships like being in a P.O.W. camp, traveling on foot for hundreds of miles in severe weather conditions, injuries and frostbite- are accepted into the home of a high government official. The draw of the Tibetan culture and the Holy City is so strong that Heinrich and Peter decide to stay there, and Peter even ends up marrying the town seamstress or â€Å"tailor,† as she so unequivocally points out, after both men compete for her affections and Peter ends up winning. They come to refer to the city as Paradise, and indeed after the invasion of the Chinese under the command of Mao Tse Tung, one has a definite feeling of Paradise lost. The remoteness and mystery of the city are a key part of the movie, and appear to be part of the director’s intention of showing Tibet as an almost otherworldly place with a moral fiber that most people can only hope to aspire to, a place of true holiness, and not just a rigidity based on routines and rituals with no real substance to it.

Eddie and Beatrice Essay Example for Free

Eddie and Beatrice Essay Of all the characters in the play, Marco is the one most responsible for the death of Eddie Carbone Do you agree? Consider all the characters in the play who are likely to be involved. Form your own conclusion from evidence, and use six characters minimum. I am going to write an essay about who I think is the most responsible for Eddie Carbones death. I will also say whether I think Marco is the most responsible. I will talk about the different characters, and say what I think makes them responsible/not responsible for his death. Then I will give my conclusion as to whom I think is the most responsible. The characters that I am going to use for my essay are Marco, Eddie, Rodolfo, Alfieri, Catherine and Beatrice and I will write about them in that order. In the beginning Marco was a very nice man. He did not want to put Eddie and Beatrice out, and was always very friendly with them. There was never much conflict between himself and Eddie, they would talk about his family and how he was going to help his children get better. This is illustrated when Beatrice asks Marco if his wife is getting the money ok, and he replies Oh, yes. She bought medicine for my boy. Also when they are talking about money in the beginning, Marco is very eager to send his wife as much money as he can, as soon as possible. He says Because I could send them a little more if I stay here and, I want to send right away maybe twenty dollars. This shows Marco is a very caring man, and wants the best for his wife and children. Then, Eddie started to become jealous of Rodolfo and when they were talking about Marcos family it lead to respecting women, and it was like Eddie was trying to warn Rodolfo away from Catherine. Eddie starts to become very jealous and angry now, and says to Rodolfo, It aint so free here either Rodolfo, like you think Then Rodolfo tells him he does respect her and Eddie starts to talk about just taking away girls. Eddie says I know, but in your town you wouldnt just drag off some girl without permission, I mean (he turns) you know what I mean Marco? Marco replies (cautiously) yes. It was after this that things started to change between them. Eddie tried to teach Rodolfo how to box, but ended up hitting him too hard. Marco then showed Eddie that he could be strong too, by testing his strength: He kneels, grasps and with strain slowly raises the chair higher and higher. Eddies grin vanishes as he absorbs his look. Eddie couldnt lift the chair but Marco could, this was showing Eddie that he (Marco) could be twice as strong as him, and was like saying I can be strong too, Im warning you I also think this was like telling Eddie that, if he wanted to fight Rodolfo, then he would have to fight him as well. I dont think Marco is exactly to blame for Eddies death, because Eddie should have been warned and left it at that. Instead he went to the immigration service. Marco was right to be furious at Eddie who wouldnt be? He was trying to help his family to get better, and wanted them to have a better life, and now all this would go to waste. Then when Eddie brought the knife out and was about to use it on Marco I think it was an act of self-defence when Marco turned the knife around. Eddie went down with the blow of Marco punching him on the neck (because he lunged for him), and then just as Marco is about to stomp on him he brings out the knife. Eddie lunges with the knife. Marco grabs his arm, turning the blade inward and pressing it home Eddie was over-protective towards Catherine right from the start. When she wanted to go ahead with the job her principle had told her to try for he tried to stop her from going a sign that he didnt want her to leave, in case she liked it and wanted to start her own life. Eddie tells Catherine she is walking wavy This shows Eddies concern extends to the way Catherine walks. When Marco and Rodolfo came to stay, things just went from bad to worse. Eddie started being suspicious of Catherine and Rodolfo all the time, and would have a go at Rodolfo. Eddie says I know, but you wouldnt just drag off some girl without permission Eddie is accusing Rodolfo of dragging Catherine off without his permission, and saying he has no respect in for women in doing this. I think Eddie is to blame for his own death, because if he hadnt been so over-protective and jealous none of this would have happened. Another time Louis and Mike ask Eddie if he would like to go bowling with them, but he says no, hes expected at home.

Power in Congress Essay -- essays research papers

Power In and Over Congress I feel the system is biased because there are inequalities among the representation and participation of interest groups and constituents in the political system. Unfortunately, poor and uneducated citizens aren’t as organized as interest groups, lobbyists and PACs because they lack the money, resources and connections necessary to influence congress members on legislative bills. It is evident that, â€Å"businesses, interest groups and labor unions are spending more than $100 million a month to lobby the federal government†(Associated Press, SFC, 3/7/98). â€Å"The actual population of interest groups in Washington surely reflects that there is a class bias in the membership of interest groups†(JBG). â€Å"Interest groups are organized bodies of individuals who share some political goals and try to influence public policy decisions. Representatives from interest groups are referred to as lobbyists† (JBG). â€Å"Lobbyist seek to bring about the passage or defeat of legislative bills and to influence congress, often using large sums of money in a variety of ways to influence legislative outcomes† (APD). I feel that lobbyists have a great deal of influence within congress because they may have direct connections with congress members in high positions. Through PACs, organizations can pool campaign contributions from group members and donates those funds to candidates for political office. Personally, I feel that PACs have the most influence over congress because their ...

Job roles within Asda Essay

The area manager Philip Davies has a clear but hard Job which he gets well rewarded for, Philip Davies has to make major and long term decisions which could be vital to Asda, obviously he has to actually run he business day in day out and he has to attend regularly board of directors meetings plus he has to do basic and boring paperwork for most of each day. Philip Davies needed good qualifications to become the Area manager of Asda and his qualifications are: * A masters degree in Business * A degree in management * 3 A-levels * 7 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E Without these sort of qualifications Philip Davies could never have become the Area manager of Asda. Store manager The store manager Gary Hall has a slightly similar job to the Area manager except he does not communicate to the board of directors and the store manager has to work more with the employees inside of the store and he has to check that everything is going well throughout the store. The store manager is responsible for the performance measures in his store: sales, stock loss, labour cost, customer service and Licence to Trade (Health & Safety and Food Quality). The Store Manager is also responsible for managing and developing their team of Duty Managers. Gary Hall also needs good qualifications to be the store manager and they are: * Business Degree * Management degree * 3 A-levels * 6 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E These qualifications are a lot like the Area managers (Philip Davies) qualifications, probably because the jobs are similar. Managers Each manager has their own department to look after and they are: * Finance department * Customer services department * Market research department * Duty department * I.T administration department * Human Resources department The responsibilities of a manager are: * Decision making * Problem solving * Planning, setting targets (long-term objectives) * Ensuring that targets are achieved * The organisation of the working environment With a good manager all of these responsibilities can be completed. Finance manger The finance manger Sue Williams is responsible for many things the most important one being the finance department in which Sue Williams has many responsibilities like: * Accounting * Budgets * Salaries Sue Williams is also responsible for looking after her employees in the finance department. Sue Williams takes her orders from Gary Hall the store manager and then she uses her finance team to conduct those activities. Like Philip Davies and Gary Hall, Sue Williams also needed good qualifications: * Degree in management * 3 A-levels * 6 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E Read more:  Job Roles at Sainsburys Supermarkets Customer services manager The customer services manager Ben Adams in his job role will have to make sure that every customer goes home happy. Ben Adams does not actually talk to any customers because his job is to tell his customer services team how to make there customers happy. Not only does Ben Adams have to make all the customers happy but he also has to try and make a sale and that is why Ben Adams also has to try and get his team to make a sale. Like all of the other managers Ben Adams takes his orders from Gary Hall and he has to do his best to complete the jobs that Gary Hall assigns for him. To get the job as customer services manager Ben Adams needed these qualifications: * Degree in management * 3 A-levels * 6 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E As a benefit of being the Customer services manager Ben Adams gets discounts when he shops at Asda. Market research manager The Market research manager Ian Roberts is responsible for everything that goes on in the Market research department one half of the department has to design a product based on the customers’ preferences and the other half of the department has to try and sell the product that has been designed. The qualifications that Ian Roberts needed were: * Degree in management * 3 A-levels * 6 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E As a benefit of being Market Research manager Ian Roberts also gets a discount on his products whenever he shops at Asda. Duty Manager The Duty manager James Davis Is responsible for a variety of things but he is mainly in charge of the stock and the warehouse. James Davis is also responsible for all trade operations and James Davis has to make sure that all of the employees in the Duty department all work well together and all work to their full potential and of course he also has to make sure that all of his employees are happy in their working environment. As well as trade operations James Davis also has to improve sales and profitability and at times he and his team may deputise for the store manager Gary hall. To become the Duty manager, James Davis needed these qualifications: * Degree in management * 3 A-levels * 6 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E And of course like all the other department managers James Davis as a benefit receives discounts on his items whenever he shops at Asda. I.T. and Administration manager The I.T. and Administration manager Sue Williams has many responsibilities like being in charge of everyone in the I.T. and Admin’ departments (plus the finance department) so she has many activities which mostly consist of filling out forms and reports also Sue Williams has to ensure that all of the employees in her departments work effectively and of course she has to set everyone their tasks each weak and each month the store manager will tell Sue Williams what she will have to do by the end of the month. To be the I.T. and Administration manager Sue Williams needed these qualifications: * Degree in management * 3 A-levels * 6 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E As the manager of the I.T and Administration and Finance departments Sue Williams has to work 60 hours per week plus a lot of overtime. Because Sue Williams is the manager of two departments she gets paid à ¯Ã‚ ¿Ã‚ ½42,000 per year and more if the store manager thinks she deserves it. Sue Williams also gets discounts on whatever she buys at Asda. Human resources manager The Human resources manager Stuart Thatcher is responsible for a lot of things like: * Recruitment * Training * Dismissal * Promotion * Health and Safety It is Stuart Thatcher’s job to make sure that all of these jobs get done well and to make sure that they do get done well Stuart Thatcher has to set out appropriate tasks for his team and he has to plan everything that his team will have to do for Asda, e.g. if the store needed 5 more employees for staking shelves or whatever it would be Stuart Thatcher’s job to make sure that the right people were appointed for the store, or another example could be that if the store needed two people to be laid off then it would be Stuart Thatcher’s job to dismiss the two employees. To become the Human resources manager Stuart Thatcher needed these qualifications: * Degree in management * 3 A-levels * 6 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E As a benefit of being the Human resources manager Stuart Thatcher gets a discount on anything he buys at Asda. Stuart Thatcher has to work 48 hours a week, plus he may sometimes be asked to work overtime. As the manager of the Human resources department Stuart Thatcher gets paid à ¯Ã‚ ¿Ã‚ ½25,000 per year and more if the store manager thinks he deserves it. Supervisors They are responsible to the junior or middle management, and responsible for the team members. Their main role is to: a) Supervise the teamwork. b) Make sure that daily targets are met and problems are solved. Account supervisor Every single month he and his team will have to check through all accounts, check the cash flow forecast, and Asses the accounts every year and make sure that they are correct, accounts are very important because if they are wrong Asda could lose a lot of money because if they do not keep track of their debtors then they will forget about how much they owe Asda, and they will lose a lot of money. To become the accounts supervisor he needed these qualifications: * 4 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E * 2 A-levels * 1 A-level must have been in business As a benefit of being the Account supervisor he gets a discount on anything he buys at Asda. The Accounts supervisor has to work 44 hours per week and he gets paid à ¯Ã‚ ¿Ã‚ ½16,000 per year. Marketing supervisor It is his job to be constantly be updating Asda’s products, he and his team at the start will find out what the department managers want and what the customers (or consumers) want. So first they will go to the department managers and ask them what they would like in the store and then they have to go out on the streets and ask the customers a series of questions about what kind of product they would like, and also the market research team will have to assess the competitors products e.g. Tesco’s new products and Safeway’s new products and once they have assessed the competitors products they will try to better them based on the department managers specifications and the customers (or consumers) specifications. To become the marketing supervisor he needed these qualifications: * 4 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E * 2 A-levels * Some Market research experience As a benefit of being the Marketing supervisor she gets a discount on anything she buys at Asda. The Marketing supervisor has to work 44 hours per week and he gets paid à ¯Ã‚ ¿Ã‚ ½16,000 per year. Recruitment supervisor The jobs of her and her team are to put in adverts (containing all of the specifications about the job) in the local newspapers and the job centre, etc and then application forms would be given to the candidates and then some of the candidates would be given an interview based on how good there application form and C.V.’s were. Then once everyone has been given an interview some people will be turned away leaving 10 people left which will be given a second interview and after that interview one of them will be given the job. She can only set out to employ somebody once she has been told to by Stuart Thatcher the Human resources manager. To become the recruitment supervisor she needed these qualifications: * 4 A*-C grades at G.C.S.E * 2 A-levels * Some experience in Human resources As a benefit of being the Recruitment supervisor she gets a discount on anything she buys at Asda. The Recruitment supervisor has to work 44 hours per week and she gets paid à ¯Ã‚ ¿Ã‚ ½16,000 per year. Assistants or support staff These are people who support the internal working of the organisation and who perform support tasks for managers. The main duties of the support staff are: * To carry out the duties as specified on the job description and as required by the manager or supervisor. * To obey reasonable instructions * To co-operate with other team members. One example of an assistant is the Warehouse Assistant and his job is very clear, his job is to retrieve the stock from the suppliers and then take the stock to the warehouse and put it in order for it to go up on the shelves which the warehouse assistant and his team members will do. The Warehouse Assistant has to work. The warehouse Assistant has to work 54 hours per week like most assistants and he gets paid à ¯Ã‚ ¿Ã‚ ½7 per hour and he often has to work overtime for which he gets paid à ¯Ã‚ ¿Ã‚ ½4 more per hour like most assistants.

Music and the african-american people

Think about black music and you immediately come up with black gospel music, right? There are a large number of famous soul singers nowadays who began as gospel music artists. This impressive list includes, among others, James Brown, Aretha Franklin, Ray Charles, Lou Rawls, Sam Cooke and Otis Redding, says Leonard Goines in the online article â€Å"Gospel Music and the Black Consciousness†.In terms of history, Goines noted that black gospel music grew out of the late 19th and early 20th century folk church and is essentially created in a context of individual and collective spontaneity. As a total manifestation, black gospel can be viewed as a synthesis of West African and Afro-American music, dance, poetry, oratory and drama. There are two basic sources from which the aesthetic ideals of gospel singing have been derived.These are the free-style collective improvisations utilized by congregations in the black church and the black gospel preacher's rhetorical solo style. Since the beginning of their history in the plantation praise houses, black preachers have utilized folk poetry and the vivid phrase to excite the emotions and involve the participation of their congregations. Possessing special oratorical skills marked by a call-and-response format and punctuated with groans and gestures, these master preachers have been able to create an aura of excitement and hope rarely equaled (Goines, 2004)I would have to agree with Goines when he pointed out gospel has distilled the aesthetic essence of the black arts into a unified whole. The uniqueness of black gospel music, in my opinion, is in the experience itself when you listen to it. As noted by Goines, few people can experience gospel in its true cultural setting and fail to hear black poetry in the black preacher's sermon. Nor can they fail to see drama in the emotion-packed performance of a black gospel choir interacting with its congregation; nor fail to see dance in the gospel shout.It is also in this aspect that I would say yes, there is such a thing as a Black Style. Anyone who listens to gospel music can easily identify if the singer is black or not. The soulfulness and the emotions revealed in black gospel music is definitely a manifestation of the proud cultural heritage of the African-American people. Source: Goines, Leonard 2004: Gospel Music and the Black Consciousness [online] Available at: http://www. afgen. com/gospel21. html [cited on May 24, 2006]

7 Ethnic Names with Figurative Meanings

7 Ethnic Names with Figurative Meanings 7 Ethnic Names with Figurative Meanings 7 Ethnic Names with Figurative Meanings By Mark Nichol Names of ethnic groups have inspired nonliteral associations, many of them derogatory designations for the â€Å"other.† Here are seven such terms based on such names. 1. Bohemian: This word for one who adopts an unconventional lifestyle derives from the name of a historic region of Europe that now constitutes much of the present-day Czech Republic. Because many of the Romani people (see gypsy, below) had lived for a time in this area before settling in France, they were called Bohemians. In turn, this designation was attached to artists and writers who, because of poverty (voluntary or otherwise), often lived in city neighborhoods where the â€Å"original† Bohemians had concentrated. Words derived from the term include the abbreviation boho and the neologism bobo, the latter from â€Å"bourgeois bohemian,† referring to an affluent person from a mainstream background who affects nontraditional attitudes and habits. 2. Goth: This designation for a modern subculture distinguished by somber attire and demeanor and a fascination with death and the supernatural has its roots in gothic literature and horror imagery inspired by German expressionism. Gothic literature, in turn, derives its name from the standard setting of stories in this genre: castles or monasteries of the Gothic architectural style. This style, meanwhile, takes its name from a pejorative use of Gothic to mean â€Å"barbaric†; the Goths were a loose confederation of tribes from Scandinavia responsible for the conquest of Rome and other centers of civilization in the early Middle Ages. 3. Gypsy: The Romani, members of a far-flung ethnic group originally from the Indian subcontinent, were long believed to have come from Egypt, and their informal name, now sometimes considered pejorative, derived from Egyptian. The term has also been used to refer to people with nontraditional, nomadic lifestyles and is employed loosely in such terms as â€Å"gypsy dancer.† The truncation gyp, meaning â€Å"cheat,† in both noun and verb form, results from an association of the Romani with fraud and thievery. 4. Lesbian: This name for a person from the Greek island of Lesbos acquired a connotation of female homosexuality thanks to a resident named Sappho, a woman who wrote poetry expressing love and passion for both men and women. Here name also led to the use of the adjective Sapphic to describe female homosexuality. 5. Philistine: Influenced by biblical references to a people of the Near East called the Philistines as archenemies of the Israelites (the land they had lived in was later called Palestine), the term came to be used to refer to uncivilized people; later by extension, a philistine was a person lacking refined artistic or cultural tastes and values. 6. Tartar: Though the term is now used rarely, a tartar is an irritable or violent person. The name comes from a variation of Tatar, the designation for an ethnic group originating near what is now Mongolia and now found in Russia and nearby countries; the Tatars, long allied with the Mongols, were stereotyped as being ruthless. 7. Vandal: This Germanic tribe, originating in Scandinavia, came to be associated with looting and pillaging because, after migrating throughout Europe and settling in North Africa, the Vandals conquered Rome in the early Middle Ages. However, recent historians have argued that the Vandals did not destroy the late Roman civilization but rather adopted the culture. Nevertheless, the word still refers to someone who damages property. Want to improve your English in five minutes a day? Get a subscription and start receiving our writing tips and exercises daily! Keep learning! Browse the Vocabulary category, check our popular posts, or choose a related post below:70 "Home" Idioms and ExpressionsAnyone vs. EveryoneTrooper or Trouper?

lord of the flies play essays

lord of the flies play essays The theatre version of Lord of the Flies based on the novel by William Golding and adapted by Nigel Williams are now being presented in the Lyric Theatre Hammersmith, London. Tickets cost about 7.00. This review is comparing the book and how Nigel Williams adapted it. The theatre version of Lord of the Flies is very good. Interesting and always in the climax. The actors are not little kids and there are not lots of them. There are only 8 actors. Some of the actors take 2 or 3 roles. The adult actors acted like a bunch of kids, which was very effective. The way the stage is set out was terrific, the moves around and about on the stage were really planned out well. The stage is a wrecked plane broken in to 2 parts. Actors used up all the stage. See diagram. For example when it is the mountain scene the fire on top of the shelter is lit up and the movable part is facing towards us with the highest point towards the audience. When simon is running down the mountain the movable parts were facing with the lowest point towards us so that it creates a downhill effect. Piggy was a very good actor. The person who took the role of piggy really sounded like piggy.(cockney accent). Some of Piggys lines were cut out and the way the Piggy died was totally different. Ralph was played by a good actor. The actor was really active, hyper, and was very childlike. He was serious and sometimes fun like in the book. Jack was not what I expected. The entrance of the choir was very good but Jacks voice was just to high pitched and annoying. If Jack were a bit more serious and manly he would have been the perfect actor. Jack sounded too childish. Simon was a very good actor. He was interesting. I taught that the actor had the potential to be like Ralph but because he plays Simon he doesnt talk that much. The ...

Biography of Tarquin the Proud, Etruscan King of Rome

Biography of Tarquin the Proud, Etruscan King of Rome Lucius Tarquinius Superbus (died 495 BCE), or Tarquin the Proud, ruled Rome between 534 and 510 BCE and was the last king the Romans would tolerate. Tarquinius despotic reign earned him the title Superbus (proud, haughty). The flaw in Superbus character- he combined a great deal of ambition with a wealth of family treachery in his background- eventually led to the end of the Etruscan rule over the city of Rome. Superbus was a member of the Tarquin Dynasty, dubbed the Great House of Tarquin by Romes historian Livy, but the spotty, intrigue-riddled reign was hardly a dynasty. The Tarquins were one of several Etruscan chiefs, including the Tarchu, Mastarna, and Porsenna, who in turn usurped Romes throne with little chance to found genuine dynasties. Cicero sketched the Tarquin history in his Republica  as an example of how easily good government could degenerate. Fast Facts: Lucius Tarquinius Superbus Known For: The Last Etruscan king in RomeAlso Known As: Tarquin the ProudBorn: Year unknown in RomeFather: Lucius Tarquinius PriscusDied: 495 BCE in Cumae, RomeSpouse(s): Tullia Major, Tullia MinorChildren: Titus,  Arruns, Sextus, Tarquinia Early Years Superbus was the son or possibly the grandson of Tarquinius Priscus and son-in-law of the previous Etruscan king Servius Tullius. The exact date of Superbus birth is unknown. Ciceros text suggests that Superbus and his future wife Tullia Minor killed their respective spouses, Arruns Tarquin and Tullia Major, before murdering Servius Tullius and bringing Superbus to power. There are no historical records for this period in Roman history: Those records were destroyed when Gaul sacked Rome in 390 BCE. What scholars know of the Tarquin history are legends written down by the much later Roman historians Livy, Cicero, and Dionysius. Superbus Reign After ascending the throne, Superbus embarked on a campaign of expansion early in his reign, waging war against the Etruscans, Volci, and Latins. His victories helped cement Rome’s status as an important power in the region. Superbus also signed Rome’s first treaty with Carthage and completed construction of the massive Temple of Capitoline Jupiter. He also used forced labor to extend the Maxima drainage system, an important water-and-sewer system in ancient Rome. Revolt and the New Republic A revolt against the corrupt Etruscans was spearheaded by Tarquin the Prouds nephew Lucius Junius Brutus and Lucretias husband Tarquinius Collatinus. In the end, Superbus and all of his family (ironically, including Collatinus) were expelled from Rome. Along with the end of the Etruscan kings of Rome, the power of the Etruscans over Latium weakened. Rome replaced the Etruscan rulers with a Republic. Although there are some who believe there was a gradual transition to the consul system of the Republic, the Fasti Consulares list the annual consuls straight after the end of the regal period. Legacy Classical scholar Agnes Michels and others have suggested that the text Livy, Dionysius, and Cicero used to describe the events of the Tarquin Dynasty has all the earmarks of a classic tragedy, or rather, a trilogy of plays with the moral theme of cupido regni (kingdom of lust). Superbus legacy of court intrigue and scandal led to the end of the Etruscan rule of Rome. It was Tarquin the Prouds son, Tarquinius Sextus, who raped the Roman noblewoman Lucretia. Lucretia was the wife of his cousin Tarquinius Collatinus, and her rape brought about the end of Etruscan rule. Lucretias rape was scandalous on several levels, but it came about because of a drinking party during which her husband and other Tarquins argued over who had the most beautiful wife. Sextus was at that party and, aroused by the discussion, came to the virtuous Lucretias bed and forcibly raped her. She called her family to demand revenge, and when they didnt deliver, she committed suicide. Sources Gantz TN. 1975. The Tarquin Dynasty. Historia: Zeitschrift fà ¼r Alte Geschichte 24(4):539-554.Michels AK. 1951. The Drama of the Tarquins. Latomus 10(1):13-24.Britannica, The Editors of Encyclopaedia. â€Å"Tarquin.†Ã‚  Encyclopà ¦dia Britannica, Encyclopà ¦dia Britannica, Inc., 4 Apr. 2018.Cartwright, Mark. Lucius Tarquinius Superbus.  Ancient History Encyclopedia. Ancient History Encyclopedia, 03 Mar 2017. Web. 17 Mar 2019.

Terrorism Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 750 words - 13

Terrorism - Essay Example Their most notorious operation has been the 9/11 attack on the US World Trade Towers and other strikes on the same day. Osama’s initial purpose in forming a terrorist outfit like the Al-Qaeda was to revolt against Soviet Union’s invasion of Afghanistan, which he considered as an intrusion by non-Muslims into the â€Å"sacred Muslim territory† and its citizens (2011:5). During this stage the US also has supported him on the hope that an alliance with his group will help them to expel the soviet from there. After the Soviet occupation of Afghanistan has ended in 1988, Bin Laden and his associates began pondering how the terrorist network they have created â€Å"could be utilized† (6). The invasion of Kuwait by Iraq in 1990 and the US support for the former paved the way for Bin Laden’s antagonism against the US and Saudi Arabia’s also ignored his request to disallow US troops from basing in Iraq, which entailed in his â€Å"falling out† with the Saudi King (6). This is the background for Osama Bin Laden’s hatred for the West, especially countries like the US and UK. The Al-Qaeda’s main political ideology is to prevent the west from gaining power. On the other hand, this outfit embraces a religious philosophy that Muslims are sacred people. They consider people from other religions as non-believers or kafir and harbour the notion that killing non-believers through jihad (holy war) will earn them a place in heaven, which is their main motivation for indulging in terrorist activities. The unfulfilled promises of governments, failure of universities to stand up to the expectation of students and the advent of Marxist-Leninist philosophy as an answer to the social and economic problems, paved the way for â€Å"mass worker strike† in the late 60s and early 70s in Italy (Sundquist 2010:53). Thus, the â€Å"rising tensions† among union leaders, working class and the business owners coupled with the resentment

Role Of Notch Signaling In Oncogenesis Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2250 words

Role Of Notch Signaling In Oncogenesis - Essay Example Extensive research in notch pathway has identified either dysregulation or faulty signaling in cancers and many other diseases like multiple sclerosis, tetralogy of Fallot and Alagille syndrome. Because Notch signaling pathway is involved in the progression and development of several malignancies, it is considered a novel therapeutic target and if the research on this aspect is fruitful, it can have the highest therapeutic impact in modern clinical medicine (Wang, Li, Banerjee and Sarkar, 2008).The Notch signaling pathway The most important constituents of the Notch signaling pathway are the receptors. There are basically four types of Notch receptors which are single- pass transmembrane receptor proteins. They are Notch1 through Notch 4. Each of these is a heterodimer which is proteolytically cleaved and lies at the surface of the cell. The receptor is made up of 2 domains, the ectodomain and intracellular domain. Both these domains are associated in a calcium dependent, noncovalent interaction. Ectodomain is large and constitutes the outside part of the cell surface. The intracellular domain is smaller and tethered to the membrane. The ectodomain part of Notch receptors interacts with certain ligands of adjacent cells. These ligands belong to Jagged and Delta- like families and are named as JAG1, JAG2, DLL1, DLL3, and DLL4. The interaction between the receptor and ligand induces a couple of proteolytic cleavages causing the release of the intracellular domain part of the receptor from the cell membrane.

Comparative ethnic identity and ethnic conflict Essay

Comparative ethnic identity and ethnic conflict - Essay Example Semitic Nazi leader Adolf Hilter saw Jews as inferior people. After years of Nazi government in Germany, finally, Adolf decided to do mass killings under the cover of world war. Mass killing centers were in the camps of Poland. The time covered by the film is between 1933: where the Jewish population stood about nine million, most Europeans by then lived countries that Nazi countries would influence during world 11.By 1945; the Germans with their collaborators had killed about every three European Jews as part of solution. Between 1948and 1951, about 700,000jews immigrated to Israel, also 13600 Jewish were displaced, others emigrated to United States and other nations. In 1957, the camps closed. The main objective of the film is to gives an interdisciplinary approach to citizenship education. Students go from thought to judgment, then participation so that they can deal with moral questions important in study of racism, bigotry, violence, and anti-Semitism. The film shows consequence s of anti-Semitism, racism and discrimination by exploring the tarnish mirror of history as one of most violent times in world history in 1930 and 1940s. When the students watched and saw what really happened, they could be able to known the forces that damaged democracy in Germany, betrayed the future of young people, and finally caused holocaust. Moreover, the student can find out how those forces threaten our community. Students are able to learn how any made decisions can influence the society, nation and the entire world. The film though is biased as those who were accountable for crime against humanity, and continued theft of aboriginal land are shown as heroes which does not reflect the core values of society. The film contributed to Nazi holocaust, because it is in 1933, the Jewish population of Europe was about 9million people. In 1945, the Germans killed almost killed two out of three Europeans Jews as part of their lasting solution with their collaborators. The Jews were the primary victim of Nazi racism and deemed a priority danger to the Germanys. They were other victims including about 200,000Roma (Gypsies).there were Germanys who were mentally disabled patients living in institutional settings killed in euthanasia program. The Germans and their collaborators persecuted and killed millions of other people while the Nazi tyranny spread across Europe. The soviet prisoners of war between two to three million died of diseases, hunger, neglect, or maltreatment. The non -Jewish polish intelligentsia was killed by Germanys .They deported millions of polish and soviet civilians for forced labor in Germany or in occupied Poland. The individuals worked and died due to terrible conditions. From the beginning of Nazi government, German government mistreated homosexuals and others who had deeds against the norm of the society. The German police targeted the political opponents like communists, socialist and trade unionists, religious dissidents such as Jehova h’s witnesses. Many people died of incarceration and maltreatment. It shown that, the national socialist authority formed concentration camps to arrest real and imagined political opponents and ideological opponents. As the years increased, the police officials incarcerated Jews, Roma and other people due to ethnic and racial hatred in those camps. They wanted to monitor their population. In 1945 and 1944, Nazi German government brought millions of Jews

BRAND MANAGEMENT & RESEARCH Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2500 words

BRAND MANAGEMENT & RESEARCH - Essay Example Brand name and image of the company is so important and its implications are so far reaching that it cannot be ignored. It explains the fact that why managers today put so much emphasis on positioning and branding the organization. This paper aims at studying the effectiveness of the brand â€Å" UGG† with special reference to the three major criteria brand value, brand image and brand positioning. Brand is a connection between brand owner and the customer. So this paper aims to analyze the effectiveness of brand from the perspective of both. The strengths and weaknesses of the brand will also be analyzed. UGG  ® The history of UGG  ® registered trade mark of Australia began in 1978, when Brian Smith, a young surfer, introduced his sheep skin boots in California and became popular among surfers. It was acquired by Decker’s outdoor corporation in 1995. In the next couple of years product line grew to include two boots, four slippers, and a few casuals. It was only in 1998 that UGG  ® came in the list of the world’s finest footwear. UGG  ® was positioned as the high end luxury product and brand and a matching appropriate marketing and distribution strategy was adopted. This high end product, symbol of luxury and comfort, soon started expanding beyond Australia and beaches of California. In 2003 it was named brand of the year in footwear news. The brand promise of UGG  ® is accessible luxury. Their products fit into the everyday life of the customers. Their products are fashionable, comfortable and yet attainable and that explains their philosophy. The target customers are those people who value luxury, comfort and highest quality footwear. The quality is ensured by using the highest quality of leather, suede and world’s finest sheepskin. Their mission statement is â€Å"UGG  ® Australia markets the premier brand in luxury and comfort.† UGG has their concept stores in North America, Europe and Asia Pacific. Apart from that they have their own authorized retailers and authorized online retailers almost all over the world (UGG, 2011). Brand Value Today’s world is flooded with brands. We have witnessed the branding of almost everything around us including people. Even places, institutes, events, literally everything is branded. The list also includes intangible products such as cyber brands. Building brands is not enough because it not only raises expectation and demands from the customers but the brand has to live up to the promise (Parameswaran, 2006). Same is true for UGG brand that now represent the sheep skin boots in over 100 countries. Ugg has been the generic name for sheepskin boots in rural Australia and New Zealand since 1920’s. In this globalized world where businesses and consumers are separated, brands act as an important communication tool. A brand is an aura that surrounds any product or service and creates the differentiation criteria for the customer from the competi tors by communicating the benefits of the products and services. UGG represents luxurious and quality sheep skin shoes etc. Brand communication which emphasizes on the holistic nature and brand value takes into account all the communication channels and the audiences. In this model CEO is the ultimate brand manager, who also defines the long term strategic direction of the brand. It is the job of the brand manager to ensure the closest match between customer expectations and the band promise. It is the unique balance and the

International monetary Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1500 words - 1

International monetary - Essay Example This occurs when it becomes impossible to maintain the deficit in the current account. This situation indicates, in general sense, that there will be shortage in the foreign exchange reserves and the particular country is no longer in a position to attract sufficient amount of capital inflows for financing the deficit. For handling this situation of crisis, the government takes measure with the motto of reducing the spending of consumers on imports (Economics Help, 2011). The paper will be presented in a compact manner with the brief explanations about the policies undertaken within the exchange rate regime and alternative approaches and then taking up the interrelationships between the two phenomena along with their critical evaluation. Exchange Rate Regime in Resolving BoP Crisis The approaches under the exchange rate regime are floating, fixed and pegged exchange rate regime. ... r the interest rates and monetary aggregates; whereas in the case of pegged exchange rate system, the central bank does so for achieving stability in price. In case of the floating exchange rate regime, the government does not intervene and the rate is determined by the foreign exchange market itself (Olson & He, 2011). Alternative Approaches in Resolving BoP Crisis The alternative approaches to resolve balance of payment crisis deals with the adjustment mechanisms which can be either automatic or discretionary. Automatic adjustment for resolving BoP crisis takes into account four variables under the fixed exchange rate regime. The variables are prices, interest rates, income and money. The alternative approaches, however, are three schools of thought on the adjustment mechanism. The viability of the three schools of thought that will be discussed in this paper are classical approach (1800s - early 1900s) which was centered around standard of gold and mainly emphasized on interest ra tes and prices, the Keynesian approach (1930s onwards) that emphasized on changes in income affecting adjustment and Monetary approach that emphasized on the role of money in adjustment and changes (Carbaugh, 2005). Viability of Classical and Keynesian Approach with Respect to Exchange Rate Regime The mechanism in the classical approach with respect to price adjustment was that money supply (in terms of gold) was directly related to BoP and BoP deficit would cause the money supply to shrink. This means nations in crisis would lose gold and cause the prices to fall. The lowered prices would result in competitive exports and reduce import demands, thus would restore equilibrium. The problem with this approach is that gold flows are not directly related to domestic supply of money and the

BRAND MANAGEMENT & RESEARCH Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2500 words

BRAND MANAGEMENT & RESEARCH - Essay Example Brand name and image of the company is so important and its implications are so far reaching that it cannot be ignored. It explains the fact that why managers today put so much emphasis on positioning and branding the organization. This paper aims at studying the effectiveness of the brand â€Å" UGG† with special reference to the three major criteria brand value, brand image and brand positioning. Brand is a connection between brand owner and the customer. So this paper aims to analyze the effectiveness of brand from the perspective of both. The strengths and weaknesses of the brand will also be analyzed. UGG  ® The history of UGG  ® registered trade mark of Australia began in 1978, when Brian Smith, a young surfer, introduced his sheep skin boots in California and became popular among surfers. It was acquired by Decker’s outdoor corporation in 1995. In the next couple of years product line grew to include two boots, four slippers, and a few casuals. It was only in 1998 that UGG  ® came in the list of the world’s finest footwear. UGG  ® was positioned as the high end luxury product and brand and a matching appropriate marketing and distribution strategy was adopted. This high end product, symbol of luxury and comfort, soon started expanding beyond Australia and beaches of California. In 2003 it was named brand of the year in footwear news. The brand promise of UGG  ® is accessible luxury. Their products fit into the everyday life of the customers. Their products are fashionable, comfortable and yet attainable and that explains their philosophy. The target customers are those people who value luxury, comfort and highest quality footwear. The quality is ensured by using the highest quality of leather, suede and world’s finest sheepskin. Their mission statement is â€Å"UGG  ® Australia markets the premier brand in luxury and comfort.† UGG has their concept stores in North America, Europe and Asia Pacific. Apart from that they have their own authorized retailers and authorized online retailers almost all over the world (UGG, 2011). Brand Value Today’s world is flooded with brands. We have witnessed the branding of almost everything around us including people. Even places, institutes, events, literally everything is branded. The list also includes intangible products such as cyber brands. Building brands is not enough because it not only raises expectation and demands from the customers but the brand has to live up to the promise (Parameswaran, 2006). Same is true for UGG brand that now represent the sheep skin boots in over 100 countries. Ugg has been the generic name for sheepskin boots in rural Australia and New Zealand since 1920’s. In this globalized world where businesses and consumers are separated, brands act as an important communication tool. A brand is an aura that surrounds any product or service and creates the differentiation criteria for the customer from the competi tors by communicating the benefits of the products and services. UGG represents luxurious and quality sheep skin shoes etc. Brand communication which emphasizes on the holistic nature and brand value takes into account all the communication channels and the audiences. In this model CEO is the ultimate brand manager, who also defines the long term strategic direction of the brand. It is the job of the brand manager to ensure the closest match between customer expectations and the band promise. It is the unique balance and the

Critically evaluate two language teaching styles and indicate, with Essay - 1

Critically evaluate two language teaching styles and indicate, with examples, their potential use within a specific teaching context with which you are familiar - Essay Example This study is being undertaken in order to assess the usage of these learning styles as part of the teaching process, in the hope of seeking improvements and updating strong points for the benefit of the teacher and, most especially, the learner or student. There are eight known approaches to language teaching. These approaches have been conceptualized in view of the fact that teachers and education institutions have recognized the fact that there is no right and single way to teach foreign languages. The Center for Applied Linguistics acknowledges the fact that there is no superior means of language teaching which would also fit all students in all settings. It identified eight language teaching methods which are being used today. According to Doggett (2003, p. 165), these methods include the Grammar Translation Method which focuses on improving student’s participation in the target literature the teacher’s method in teaching the language. Doggett (2003, p. 165) discusses that students are given target language lines and are then asked to answer the questions which follow. This class is structured with the teacher exerting much control over the learning process. Doggett (2003, p. 165) goes on to discuss another method wh ich is the direct method. She discusses that this method gives students the ability to perceive meaning directly through language, since no language translation is allowed. She also emphasizes that visual aids and pantomime are incorporated in the learning process in order to clearly express the meaning of words and concepts. Doggett (2003, p. 165) also discusses the audio-lingual method of language teaching, which is based on the behaviourist concept which suggests that learning language is about gaining the right language habits. In this case, the learner repeats patterns until he can produce such patterns naturally. According to Doggett (2003, p. 165), the silent way is based on

Sample Questions Essay Example for Free

Sample Questions Essay Price is below the minimum of average variable cost. b. Fixed costs exceed variable costs. c. Average fixed costs are rising. d. Marginal cost is above average variable cost. 4 In the long run, a profit-maximizing firm will choose to exit a market when a. Fixed costs exceed sunk costs. b. Average fixed cost is rising. c. Revenue from production is less than total costs. d. marginal cost exceeds marginal revenue at the current level of production. 5 When firms have an incentive to exit a competitive market, their exit will a. Drive down market prices. b. Drive down profits of existing firms in the market. . Decrease the quantity of goods supplied in the market. d. All of the above are correct. 6 In a perfectly competitive market, the process of entry or exit ends when a. Firms are operating with excess capacity. b. Firms are making zero economic profit. c. Firms experience decreasing marginal revenue. d. Price is equal to marginal cost. 7 Equilibrium quantities in markets characterized by oligopoly is a. Lower than in monopoly markets and higher than in perfectly competitive markets. b. Lower than in monopoly markets and lower than in perfectly competitive markets. Higher than in monopoly markets and higher than in perfectly competitive markets. d. Higher than in monopoly markets and lower than in perfectly competitive markets. 8 In economics the central problem is: a. b. c. d. e. Allocation. Consumption. Scarcity. Money. Production. c. 9 Indicate below what is NOT a factor of production. a. Land. b. A bank loan. c. Labor. d. Capital. 10 Macroeconomics deals with: a. The behavior of firms. b. Economic aggregates. c. The activities of individual units. d. The behavior of the electronics industry. 11 Microeconomics is not concerned with the behavior of: a. Aggregate demand. . Consumers. c. Industries. d. Firms. 12 The study of inflation is part of: a. Normative economics. b. Macroeconomics. c. Microeconomics. d. Descriptive economics. 13 Aggregate supplies is the total amount: a. Produced by the government. b. Of products produced by a given industry. c. Of labor supplied by all households. d. Of goods and services produced in an economy. 14 The total demand for goods and services in an economy is known as: a. National demand. b. Economy-wide demand. c. Gross national product. d. Aggregate demand. 15 If marginal benefit is greater than marginal cost, a rational choice involves: a. More of the activity. b. Less of the activity. c. No more of the activity. d. More or less, depending on the benefits of other activities. 16 A student chooses to study because the marginal benefit is greater than the ________ cost. a. average b. total c. marginal d. expected 17 Periods of less than full employment correspond to: a. b. c. d. Points outside the production possibility curve. Points inside the production possibility curve. Points on the production possibility curve. Either points inside or outside the production possibility curve. 18 The circular flow of goods and incomes shows the relationship between: a. Income and money. b. Wages and salaries. c. Goods and services. d. Firms and households. 19 In a free market system, the amount of goods and services that any one household gets depends upon its: a. Income. b. Wage and interest income. c. Wealth. d. Income and wealth. 20 In a planned or command economy, all the economic decisions are taken by the: a. Consumers. b. Workers. c. Government. d. Voters. Answers for Multiple Choice Questions 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (a) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (c) 11(a) 12(b) 13(d) 16(c) 17(b) 18(d) 4 (c) 9 (b) 14(d) 19(d) 5 (c) 10 (b) 15(a) 20(c) Chapter-2 PRINCIPLES OF MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS Multiple Choice Questions 1 The word that comes from the Greek word for â€Å"one who manages a household is a. Market. b. Consumer. c. Producer. d. Economy. 2 Economics deals primarily with the concept of a. Scarcity. b. Poverty. c. Change. d. Power. 3 Which of the following is NOT included in the decisions that every society must make? a. what goods will be produced b. who will produce goods c. what determines consumer preferences d. who will consume the goods 4 In a market economy, characterized by Capitalism, there is full interference by the State in the economic activities of consumers and producers. a)True (b) False 5 In a market system of economy, there is no harmony between individual interests and interests of the community. (a)True (b) False 6 Efficiency is the relation between returns and cost. (a)True (b) False 7 The subject matter of macro –economic includes the theory of income and employment at an individual level. (a)True (b) False 8 Rational decision results in†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦for the employees. a. Division of work. b. Centralization. c. Discipline. d. Motivation 9 A Theory Y approach is more suitable where a job offers: a. a high degree of intrinsic satisfaction. b. The ability to exercise initiative. c. An element of problem solving. d. All of the above. 10 Breech identifies four main elements of management. They are planning, control, coordination and: a. The division of work. b. Centralization. c. Discipline. d. Motivation. 11 Many well-known business economists participate in public debates. (a)True (b) False 12 Marginal Utility is the utility derived from the additional unit of a commodity consumed. (a)True (b) False 13 Compared to the static model, the fishing effort in a dynamic model is likely to be a. Larger. b. Smaller. c. Similar. . Larger or smaller. 14 Land, labor, and money are the three categories of economic resources. (a)True (b) False 15 Which of the following is not an interest rate derivative used for interest rate management? Interest rate guarantee a. Floor b. Swap c. Cap d. All of the above are interest rate derivatives 16 An agreement which guarantees an investor a minimum return on a principal amount is called a: a. Cap b. Executive stock option c. Stock option d. Floor 17 Which of the factors listed below is not a reason for decision making in organizations being a complex process? a. Modern information systems enable people to evaluate a range of possible outcomes b. Factors in the current context of the organization affect the decision c. Several stakeholders will have an interest in the decision d. People have to make decisions in a historical context 18 The overall process of decision making in, for example, staff selection includes which of these stages? a. Deciding which candidate to appoint b. Identifying the need for a new member of staff c. Agreeing the job specification d. All of the above 19 A manager who is helping a customer return some shoes they purchased last week is dealing with what type of decision? . Uncertainty b. Non-programmed decision c. Bounded rationality d. Programmed decision 20 Decision making situations can be categorized along a scale which ranges from: a. Uncertainty to certainty to risk b. Certainty to uncertainty to risk c. Certainty to risk to uncertainty d. Certainty to risk to uncertainty to ambiguity Answers for Multiple Choic e Questions 1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (c) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (d) 11(a) 12(a) 13(a) 16(d) 17(a) 18(d) 4 (b) 9 (d) 14(b) 19(d) 5 (b) 10 (d) 15(d) 20(d) Chapter-3 CONCEPT OF DEMAND Multiple Choice Questions 1 The quantity demanded of Pepsi has decreased. The best explanation for this is that: a. The price of Pepsi increased. b. Pepsi consumers had an increase in income. c. Pepsis advertising is not as effective as in the past. d. The price of Coca Cola has increased. 2 Demand curves are derived while holding constant: a. Income, tastes, and the price of other goods. b. Tastes and the price of other goods. c. Income and tastes. d. Income, tastes, and the price of the good. 3 When the decrease in the price of one good causes the demand for another good to decrease, the goods are: a. Normal b. Inferior c. Substitutes d. Complements 4 Suppose the demand for good Z goes up when the price of good Y goes down. We can say that goods Z and Y are: a. Substitutes. b. Complements. c. Unrelated goods. d. Perfect substitutes. 5 If the demand for coffee decreases as income decreases, coffee is: a. An inferior good. b. A normal good. c. A complementary good. d. A substitute good. 6 Which of the following will NOT cause a shift in the demand curve for compact discs? a. A change in the price of pre-recorded cassette tapes. b. A change in income. c. A change in the price of compact discs. d. A change in wealth. When excess demand occurs in an unregulated market, there is a tendency for: a. Quantity supplied to decrease. b. Quantity demanded to increase. c. Price to rise. d. Price to fall. 8 Market equilibrium exists when _____________ at the prevailing price. a. b. c. d. quantity demanded is less than quantity supplied quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded quantity demanded equals quantity supplied qu antity demanded is greater than quantity supplied 9 A movement along the demand curve to the left may be caused by: a. A decrease in supply. b. A rise in the price of inputs. c. A fall in the number of substitute goods. d. A rise in income. 10 The quantity demanded of a product rises whenever (a) The product’s price falls. (b) Incomes increase. (c) Population increases. (d) The prices of substitute goods rise. (e) Consumer tastes and preferences change. 11 The equilibrium quantity must fall when (a) There is a decrease in demand. (b) There is a decrease in supply. (c) There is an increase in price. (d) There is an increase in demand and supply. (e) There is a decrease in demand and supply 12 The demand curve will shift to the left for most consumer goods when (a) Incomes decrease. b) The prices of substitutes fall. (c) The prices of complements increase (d) All of the above. 13 Producer goods, also called intermediate goods, in economics, goods manufactured and used in further manufacturing, processing, or resale. (a)True (b) False 14 Consumer goods are alternately called final goods, and the second term makes more sense in understanding the concept. (a)True (b) False 15 GDP stands for a. Gross Domestic Product b. Gross Deistic Product c. Gross dynamic product d. All of these 16 GNP stands for a. Gross national product b. Gross natural product c. Both (a)and (b) d. None of these 17 When the demand for a product is tied to the purchase of some parent product, its demand is called induced or derived. (a)True (b) False 18 An industry is the aggregate of firms (a)True (b) False 19 The law of demand implies that: a. As prices fall, quantity demanded increases. b. As prices rise, quantity demanded increases. c. As prices fall, demand increases. d. As prices rise, demand decreases. 20 When the market operates without interference, price increases will distribute what is available to those who are willing and able to pay the most. This process is known as: a. Price rationing. . Price fixing. c. Quantity adjustment. d. Quantity setting Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (c) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (c) 11(d) 12(d) 13(a) 16(a) 17(a) 18(a) 4 (b) 9 (a) 14(a) 19(a) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(a) 20(a) Chapter-4 DETERMINATION OF DEMAND 1 The demand for a product or a service depends on a host of factors. (a)True (b) False 2 Demand curves may also be shifted by cha nges in expectations. (a)True (b) False 3 Quantity demand is a specific quantity that buyers are willing and able to buy at a specific demand price. (a)True (b) False 4 If the price of a complement increases, all else equal, a. Quantity demanded will increase. b. Quantity supplied will increase. c. Demand will increase. d. Demand will decrease. 5 Which of the following would lead to an INCREASE in the demand for golf balls? a. An decrease in the price of golf balls. b. An increase in the price of golf clubs. c. A decrease in the cost of producing golf balls. d. An increase in average household income when golf balls are a normal good. 6 If input prices increase, all else equal, a. Quantity supplied will decrease. b. Supply will increase. c. Supply will decrease. d. Demand will decrease. 7 Which of the following would decrease the supply of wheat? . A decrease in the price of pesticides. b. An increase in the demand for wheat. c. A rise in the price of wheat. d. An increase in the price of corn. 8 When Sonoma Vineyards increases the price of its Chardonnay from $15 per bottle to $20 per bottle, the result is a decrease in†¦ a. The quantity of this wine demanded. b. The quantity of this wine supplied. c. The demand for this wine. d. The supply of this wine. 9 Which of the following will cause a change in quantity supplied? a. Technological change. b. A change in input prices. c. A change in the market price of the good. d. A change in the number of firms in the market. 0 In which of the following cases will the effect on equilibrium output be indeterminate (i. e. , depend on the magnitudes of the shifts in supply and demand)? a. Demand decreases and supply decreases. b. Demand remains constant and supply increases. c. Demand decreases and supply increases. d. Demand increases and supply increases. 11 An increase in the number of firms selling pizza will cause, ceteris paribus, (a) an increase in supply. (b) an increase in demand. (c) a decrease in quantity demanded. (d) a decrease in the quantity supplied. 12 A change in demand is a change in the ENTIRE demand relation. a)True (b) False 13 The demand for a given product will rise if: a. Incomes rise for a normal good or fall for an inferior good b. The price of a complement falls c. The price of a substitute rises d. All of these 14 Two explanations for the law of demand are (a) Price and quantity effects. (b) Substitution and income effects. (c) Opportunity cost and substitution effects. (d) Substitutes and inferior goods. (e) None of the above. 15 An increase in demand, ceteris paribus, will usually cause (a) A decrease in quantity demanded. (b) an increase in quantity supplied. (c) an increase in supply. d) a higher quantity and a lower price. 16. The quantity demanded of a product rises whenever (a) the product’s price falls. (b) incomes increase. (c) population increases. (d) the prices of substitute goods rise 17 The demand curve is downward-sloping because at a higher price for a good (ceteris paribus) (a) people buy fewer substitutes. (b) people buy more complements. (c) people search for substitutes. (d) income rises. (e) substitutes become complements. 18 The supply curve is upward-sloping be cause at higher prices for a good (a) consumers search out more substitutes. (b) consumer income increases. c) demand is lower. (d) None of the above. 19 If the factors held constant along a supply or demand curve change, (a) the equilibrium may change. (b) the demand and supply equilibrium may be disrupted. (c) the supply or demand curve may shift. (d) All of the above. 20 If the price of crackers goes up when the price of cheese goes down, crackers and cheese are (a) inferior goods. (b) substitutes. (c) both substitutes and complements. (d) complements Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (a) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(a) 13(d) 16(a) 17(c) 18(d) 4 (d) 9 (c) 14(b) 19(a) 5 (d) 10 (c) 15(b) 20(d) Chapter-5 PRICE ELASTICITY OF DEMAND 1 If the price elasticity of demand for a good is . 75, the demand for the good can be described as: a. normal b. elastic c. inferior d. inelastic. 2. When the price of a product is increased 10 percent, the quantity demanded decreases 15 percent. In this range of prices, demand for this product is: a. elastic b. inelastic c. cross-elastic. d. unitary elastic. 3. If the price elasticity of demand for a product is equal to 0. 5, then a 10 percent decrease in price will: a. increase quantity demanded by 5 percent. b. increase quantity demanded by 0. percent. c. decrease quantity demanded by 5 percent. d. decrease quantity demanded by 0. 5 percent. 4 If an increase in the supply of a product results in a decrease in the price, but no change in the actual quantity of the product exchanged, then: a. the price elasticity of supply is zero. b. the price elasticity of supply is infinite. c. the price elasticity of demand is unitary. d. the price elasticit y of demand is zero. 5. If 100 units of product K are sold at a unit price of $10 and 75 units of product K are sold at a unit price of $15, one can conclude that in this price range: a. emand for product K is elastic. b. demand for product K is inelastic. c. demand for product K has shifted to the right. d. consumers are sensitive to price changes of product K. 6 Total revenue falls as the price of a good increases if price ela sticity of demand is: a. elastic. b. inelastic c. unitary elastic d. perfectly elastic. 7 The demand for Cheerios cereal is more price-elastic than the demand for cereals as a whole. This is best explained by the fact that: a. Cheerios are a luxury. b. cereals are a necessity. c. there are more substitutes for Cheerios than for cereals as a whole. d. onsumption of cereals as a whole is greater than consumption of Cheerios. 8 What is the most likely effect of the development of television, videocassette players, and rental movies on the movie theater industry ? a. b. c. d. decreased costs of producing movies increased demand for movie theater tickets movie theater tickets become an inferior good increased price elasticity of demand for movie theater tickets 9 The price elasticity of demand will increase with the length of the period to which the demand curve pertains because: a. consumers incomes will increase. b. the demand curve will shift outward. . all prices will increase over time. d. consumers will be better able to find substitutes. 10. A state government wants to increase the taxes on cigarettes to increase tax revenue. (a)True (b) False 11 This tax would only be effective in raising new tax revenues if the price elasticity of demand is: a. unity b. elastic c. inelastic d. perfectly elastic. 12. Sony is considering a 10 percent price reduction on its color television sets. If the demand for sets in this price range is inelastic: A) revenues from color sets will remain constant. B) revenues derived from color sets will decrease. C) revenues derived from color sets will increase. D) the number of television sets sold will decrease 13 Elasticity of demand for a commodity with respect to change in its price. (a)True (b) False 14 An elasticity alternative in which infinitesimally small changes in price cause infinitely large changes in quantity. (a)True (b) False 15 Three factors that affect the numerical value of the price elasticity of demand are the a. b. c. d. availability of substitutes time period of analysis proportion of budget All of these 16 The price elasticity of demand is one of four common elasticity’s used in the analysis of the market. a)True (b) False 17 Cross elasticity of demand is: a. negative for complementary goods b. unitary for inferior goods. c. negative for substitute goods d. positive for inferior goods. 18. A positive cross elasticity of demand coefficient indicates that: a. a product is an inferior good. b. a product is a normal good. c. two products are substitute goods. d. t wo products are complementary goods. 19 A market without legal prices is in equilibrium when: a. quantity demanded equals price. b. the demand curve remains constant. c. quantity demanded equals quantity supplied. d. uantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied. 20 A relatively small change, say 1% on an INR 100,000 house, can make a BIG difference in the buyer’s decision to buy. (a)True (b) False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (a) 11(d) 12(c) 13(a) 14(a) 15(d) 16(a) 17(a) 18(c) 19(c) 20(a) Chapter-6 TYPES OF ELASTICITIES OF DEMAND 1 If it is observed that, in a particular market, price has risen and quantity exchanged has increased, it is likely that: a. supply has increased. b. supply has decreased. c. demand has increased. d. emand has decreased. 2 The quantity of a good demanded rises from 1000 to 1500 units when the price falls from $1. 50 to $1. 00 per unit. The price elasticity of demand for this pro duct is approximately: a. 1. 0 b. 16 c. 2. 5 d. 4. 0 3 If the elasticity of demand for a commodity is estimated to be 1. 5, then a decrease in price from $2. 10 to $1. 90 would be expected to increase daily sales by: a. 50% b. 1. 5% c. 5% d. 15% 4 A long-run demand curve, as compared to a short-run demand curve for the same commodity, is generally: a. more elastic b. less elastic c. of the same elasticity d. none of the above. The price elasticity of demand is 5. 0 if a 10 percent increase in the price results in a a. 2%decrease in quantity demanded. b. 5%decrease in quantity demanded. c. 10% decrease in quantity demanded d. 50% decrease in quantity demanded. 6 Demand for a good will likely be more elastic, a. The higher the level of income. b. The larger the proportion of monthly income spent on it. c. The fewer the good substitutes available. d. The higher the price of complementary goods. 7 Demand will be more elastic, a. The higher the income. b. The lower the price. c. The shor ter the passage of time after a permanent price increase. . The more substitutes available for the good. 8 The price elasticity of demand measures the sensitivity of demand to price changes. (a)True (b) False 9 If a good has no close substitutes and is regarded as a necessity by many consumers, then demand for the good will be quite elastic. (a)True (b) False 10 Cross elasticity of demand is the ratio of the percentage change in demand for a good to the percentage change in price for another. (a)True (b) False 11 A 50 percent increase in price that results in a 90 percent decrease in the quantity demanded indicates that demand is elastic in this price range. a)True (b)False 12 Demands for most goods tend to become more elastic with the passage of time. (a)True (b) False 13 If two goods are substitutes, then an increase in the price of one good will leads to an increase in the demand for the other good. (a)True (b) False 14 If two goods are complements, then a decrease in the price o f one good will results in a decrease in the demand of the other good. (a)True (b) False 15 The price elasticity of demand is the same as the slope of the demand curve. (a)True (b) False 16 If demand is price elastic, then: a. a rise in price will raise total revenue. b. a fall in price will raise total revenue. . a fall in price will lower the quantity demanded. d. a rise in price wont have any effect on total revenues. 17 Complementary goods have: a. The same elasticity’s of demand. b. very low price elasticity of demand. c. negative cross price elasticity of demand with respect to each other. d. positive income elasticity of demand. 18 The price elasticity of demand generally tends to be: a. smaller in the long run than in the short run. b. smaller in the short run than in the long run. c. larger in the short run than in the long run. d. unrelated to the length of time. 19 If the price elasticity of supply of doodads is 0. 0 and the price increases by 3 percent, then the q uantity supplied of doodads will rise by a. 0. 60 percent. b. 0. 20 percent c. 1. 8 percent d. 18 percent. 20 If the cross-price elasticity between two commodities is 1. 5, a. The two goods are luxury goods. b. The two goods are complements. c. The two goods are substitutes. d. The two goods are normal goods. Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(a) 13(a) 16(b) 17(c) 18(b) 4 (a) 9 (b) 14(b) 19(c) 5 (d) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(c) Chapter-7 SUPPLY ANALYSIS 1 The cost of factor inputs like land, labor, and capital has a major influence on supply. a)True (b) False 2 Which of the following factors will make the demand for a product more elastic? (Assume the product has a straight-line, downward sloping demand. ) a. The product has no close substitutes. b. A very small proportion of income is spent on the good. c. A long time period has elapsed since the product’s price changed. d. A lower price 3 For a given normal supply curve, the amount of a tax paid by the buyer will be larger a. the more elastic the demand. b. the more inelastic the demand. c. the income elasticity is equal to zero d. when the price is high. With a perfectly elastic demand and a normal supply (upward-slopping) a. consumers will bear the entire tax burden. b. consumers will not bear any tax burden. c. consumers and producer will split the tax burden in half. d. producers will not bear any tax burden. 5 Which of the following leads to the producers paying all of a tax? a. The supply is perfectly elastic. b. The supply is perfectly inelastic. c. The demand is unit elastic. d. The demand is perfectly inelastic. 6 The incidence (split) of sales tax is determined by the a. level of government which imposes the tax. b. federal government in all cases. c. greed of the seller. d. rice elasticity of supply and demand. 7 The market supply curve is the horizontal sum of the individual supply curve. (a)True (b) False 8 Supply determinants are five ceteris paribus factors that are held constant when a supply curve is constructed. (a)True (b) False 9 Supply is the willingness and ability of producers to make a specific quantity of output available to consumers at a particular price over a given period of time. (a)True (b) False 10 Individuals supply factors of production to firms. (a)True (b) False 11 The supply curve for tomatoes is not thus more elastic in the short run than in the momentary period. (a)True (b)False 2 Macroeconomic studies are based on empirical evidence. (a)True (b)False 13 Demand curve slopes upwards from left to right. (a) True (b)False 14 In the market, anyone who agrees to pay the requisite price of a product would be excluded from their consumption. (a) True (b)False 15 Aglets are the metal or plastic tips on shoelaces that make it easier to lace your shoes. The demand for aglets is probably a. perfectly elastic. b. inelastic. c. elastic but not perfectly elastic. d. unit elastic. 16 The cross elasticity of demand mea sures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a particular good to changes in the prices of a. Its complements but not its substitutes. b. its substitutes but not its complements. c. its substitutes and its complements d. neither its substitutes nor its complements. 17 If goods are complements, definitely their a. income elasticity’s are negative b. income elasticity’s are positive. c. cross elasticity’s are positive. d. cross elasticity’s are negative. 18 If a rise in the price of good 1 decreases the quantity of good 2 demanded, a. the cross elasticity of demand is negative b. good 1 is an inferior good. c. good 2 is an inferior good d. the cross elasticity of demand is positive. 9 The price elasticity of demand generally tends to be: a. smaller in the long run than in the short run. b. smaller in the short run than in the long run. c. larger in the short run than in the long run. d. unrelated to the length of time. 20 The demand for your services becomes more elastic. (a)True (b)False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (b) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (a) 11(b) 12(a) 13(b) 16(c) 17(d) 18(a) 4 (b) 9 (a) 14(b) 19(b) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(a) Chapter-8 PRODUCTION DECISION 1 Which of the following functions is not a core function of an organisation? a. The product/service development function b. The operations function c. The accounting and finance function d. The marketing (including sales) function 2 Most operations produce a mixture of both products and services. Which of the following businesses is closest to producing â€Å"pure† services? a. IT company b. A Restaurant c. Counsellor/therapist d. Steel company 3 Operations can be classified according to their volume and variety of production as well as the degree of variation and visibility. Which of the following operations would be classified as high volume, low variety? a. A family doctor b. A carpenter c. A front office bank d. A fast food restaurant 4 Which of the following activities is not a direct responsibility of operations management? a. Designing the operation’s products, services and processes b. Planning and controlling the operation c. Developing an operations strategy for the operation d. Determining the exact mix of products and services that customers will want 5 Operations can be classified according to the degree of variation in demand and visibility of the operation as well as their volume and variety of production. Which of the following operations would be classified as high variation and high visibility? a. A front office bank b. A family doctor c. A fast food restaurant d. A carpenter 6 The production function incorporates the technically efficient method of †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. a. production. b. process c. function d. All of these 7 A fixed input is one whose quantity cannot be varied during the time under consideration. (a)True (b)False 8 Economists find it convenient to distinguish between the †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. and the long run. a. short run b. large run c. big run d. None of these 9 The law of variable proportions states that as the quantity of one factor is increased, keeping the other factors fixed, the marginal product of that factor will eventually decline. a)True (b)False 10 MRP stands for a. Marginal Revenue Product b. Marginal Revenue process c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these 11 The book value of old equipment is not a relevant cost in a decision. (a)True (b)False 12. One of the dangers of allocating common fixed costs to a product line is that such allocations can make the line appear less profitable than it really is. (a)True (b)False 13. A differential cost is a variable cost. (a)True (b)False 14. All future costs are relevant in decision making. (a)True (b)False 15. Variable costs are always relevant costs. (a)True (b)False 6 Only the variable costs identified with a product are relevant in a decision concerning whether to eliminate the product. (a)True (b)False 17 Managers should pay little attention to bottleneck operations because they have limited capacity for producing output. (a)True (b)False 18 A cost that does not affect a decision is called an a. opportunity cost b. incremental cost c. avoidable cost d. irrelevant cost 19. Costs that change between alternatives are called a. fixed costs. b. opportunity costs. c. crelevant costs. d. sunk costs. 20. A cost incurred in the past that cannot be changed by any future action is a(n) a. pportunity cost b. sunk cost c. relevant cost d. avoidable cost Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 ( c) 3 (d) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(a) 13(b) 16(b) 17(b) 18(d) 4 (d) 9 (a) 14(b) 19(c) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(b) Chapter-9 ISOQUANT AND PRODUCTION FUNCTION 1 Economists typically assume that the owners of firms wish to a. produce efficiently. b. maximize sales revenues. c. maximize profits. d. All of these. 2 Efficient production occurs if a firm a. cannot produce its current level of output with fewer inputs. b. given the quantity of inputs, cannot produce more output. c. maximizes profit. d. All of the above. Limited liability is a benefit to a. sole proprietorships. b. partnerships. c. corporations. d. all of the above. 4 Which of the following statements best describes a production function? a. the maximum profit generated from given levels of inputs b. the maximum level of output generated from given levels of inputs c. all levels of output that can be generated from given levels of inputs d. all levels of inputs that could produce a given level of output 5 With respect to produ ction, the short run is best defined as a time period a. lasting about six months. b. lasting about two years. c. in which all inputs are fixed. d. n which at least one input is fixed. 6 In the long run, all factors of production are a. variable. b. fixed. c. materials. d. rented. 7 The short-run production functions for Albert’s Pretzels. The marginal productivity of labor equals the average productivity of labor a. for all levels of labor. b. at none of the levels of labor. c. only for the first worker. d. only for the fifth worker. 8 the short-run production function for Albert’s Pretzels. The law of diminishing marginal productivity a. appears with the second worker. b. has not yet appeared for any of the levels of labor. c. first appears with the fifth worker. d. s refuted by this evidence. 9 If the average productivity of labor equals the marginal productivity of labor, then a. the average productivity of labor is at a maximum. b. the marginal productivity of lab or is at a maximum. c. Both A and B above. d. Neither A nor B above. 10 Average productivity will fall as long as a. marginal productivity is falling. b. it exceeds marginal productivity. c. it is less than marginal productivity. d. the number of workers is increasing. 11 Factors of production are a) inputs and outputs. b) outputs only c) inputs only d) the minimum set of inputs that can produce a certain fixed quantity of output. 2 The set of all pairs (z1, z2) of inputs that yield the output y is the y-is quant. (a)True (b)False 13 L-shaped isoquants imply that production requires that the inputs are perfect substitutes. a. are imperfect substitutes. b. cannot be used together. c. must be used together in a certain proportion. d. None of these 14 Isoquants that are downward-sloping straight lines imply that the inputs a. are perfect substitutes. b. are imperfect substitutes. c. cannot be used together. d. must be used together in a certain proportion. 15 Isoquants that are downwar d-sloping straight lines exhibit a. n increasing marginal rate of technical substitution. b. a decreasing marginal rate of technical substitution. c. a constant marginal rate of technical substitution. d. a marginal rate of technical substitution that cannot be determined. 16 The profit maximization firm will choose the least cost combination of factors to produce at any given level of output. (a)True (b) False 17 The production function is useful in deciding on the additional value of employing a variable input in the production process. (a)True (b) False 18 The additional use of an input factor should be stopped when its marginal revenue productivity just equals its price. a)True (b) False 19 The least cost combination of-factors or producer’s equilibrium is now explained with the help of †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. curves and iso costs. a. iso product b. iso process c. Both(a) and (b) d. None of these 20 MRTS stands for†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. a. Marginal rate of technical stru cture b. Marginal rate of technical substitution c. Both(a) and (b) d. None of these Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (c) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (a) 11(c) 12(a) 13(c) 16(a) 17(a) 18(a) 4 (b) 9 (a) 14(a) 19(a) 5 (d) 10 (b) 15(c) 20(b) Chapter-10 THEORY OF COST 1 The cost of capital is critically important in finance. a)True (b)False An implicit cost is a. the cost of giving up an alternative b. the cost of a chosen alternative c. calculated by subtracting the monetary cost. d. none of the above 3 The historical cost of an asset refers to the actual cost incurred at the time the asset was acquired. (a)True (b) False 4 An Explicit cost is a business expense accounted cost that can be easily identified such as wage, rent and materials. (a)True (b) False 5 Private is the cost that has to be paid by an individual who is directly involved in the production or consumption of a particular good. a)True (b) False 6 Social cost or external cost is not the cost burden carried by indivi duals who are not directly involved in the production or consumption of that particular good (a)True (b) False 7 Average cost is the sum total of Average variable it and average fixed cost. (a)True (b) False 8 Cost-output relationship facilitates many managerial relationships such as: a. Formulating the standards of operations. b. Formulating the rational policy on plant size. c. Formulating a policy of profit prediction. d. All of these 9 Cost in the short-run can be classified into†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦and variable cost. a. fixed cost b. sset c. both (a) and (b) d. None of these 10 Total fixed costs remained fixed irrespective of increase or decrease in production of activity. (a)True (b) False 11 Marginal costs is the change in total cost resulting from unit change in†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. a. output b. input c. both(a) and (b) d. None of these 12 The †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. implies that the cost of production continues to be low till the firm reaches the optimum scale (Marginal cost = Av erage cost). a. V-shape b. Q-shape c. U-shape d. All of these 13 Scale economies and returns to scale generally produce a U-shaped long-run average cost curve, such as the one displayed to the right. a) True (b) False 14 __________ is concerned with the branch of economics relating the behavior of principals and their agents. a. Financial management b. Profit maximization c. Agency theory d. Social responsibility 15 A concept that implies that the firm should consider issues such as protecting the consumer, paying fair wages, maintaining fair hiring practices, supporting education, and considering environmental issues. a. Financial management b. Profit maximization c. Agency theory d. Social responsibility 16 Which of the following is not normally a responsibility of the treasurer of the modern corporation but rather the controller? . Budgets and forecasts b. Asset management c. Investment management d. Financing management 17 The __________ decision involves determining the appropr iate make-up of the righthand side of the balance sheet. a. asset management b. financing c. investment d. capital budgeting 18 A long-run is also expressed as a series of short-runs. (a)True (b)False 19 Which of the following are used in calculating opportunity costs? a. monetary costs b. the cost of time c. preference d. all of the above 20 An explicit cost is a. the cost of giving up an alternative b. the cost of a chosen alternative c. alculated by subtracting the monetary cost of an alternative by the time invested d. none of the above Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (a) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (d) 11(a) 12(c) 13(a) 16(a) 17(b) 18(a) 4 (a) 9 (a) 14(c) 19(d) 5 (a) 10 (a) 15(d) 20(b) Chapter-11 MARKET STRUCTURE, AND PRICING 1 Which of the following cannot be classed as a market structure? a. Oligopoly. b. Perfect competition. c. Communism. d. Monopolistic competition. 2 Income and population are two variables that can be used in ______ segmentation: a. psychographic b. demographic c. lifestyle d. behavioural 3 Strong exchange rates can: a. help stimate consumer purchasing power. b. help predict change in lifestyle across Europe. c. predict the evolution of sales for particular brands. d. drive imports to become cheaper. 4 BERI stands for: a. Business Economic Risk Index. b. Business Economic Rating International. c. Business Education Rating Indicator. d. Business Environment Risk Index. 5 The size and liquidity requirements are based on the minimum invest ability requirements for the MSCI Global Standard Indices. (a) True (b) False 6 Oligopoly is a market structure in which a small number of firms account for the whole industry’s output. (a) True (b) False The number of firms and product differentiation are extremely crucial in determining the nature of competition in a market. (a) True (b) False 8 type of market structure represented by the constant returns to scale (CRS) technology includes a. Monopolistic competition b. Oligopoly c. Duo poly d. Perfect competition 9 In industries in which there are scale economies, the variety of goods that a country can produce is constrained by a. the fixed cost b. the size of the labor force c. the marginal cost d. the size of the market 10 A monopoly firm engaged in international trade but enjoying a protected home market will a. quate marginal costs with foreign marginal revenues. b. equate marginal costs with marginal revenues in both domestic and foreign markets c. equate average costs in local and foreign markets d. none of the above 11 Minimum efficient scale of production in relation to the overall industry output and market requirement sometimes play a major role in shaping the market structure. (a)True (b) False 12 Price and output decisions of firms that want to maximize profits always depend on costs. (a) True (b) False 13 Which of the following is NOT a financial objective of pricing? a. Corporate growth. b. Return on investment. c. Profit maximization. d. None of these 14 Which of the following is NOT a marketing objective? a. Cash flow. b. Positioning. c. Volume sales. d. None of these 15 Setting a price below that of the competition is called: a. Skimming. b. Penetration pricing. c. Competitive pricing. d. None of these 16 Which of the following is NOT a reason for cutting prices? a. Capacity utilisation. b. Increasing profit margins. c. Market defence. d. None of these 17 Which of the following is NOT a reason for increasing prices? a. Cost pressures. b. Price comparison. c. Curbing demand. d. None of these 18 The costs that depend on output in the short run are: a. both total variable costs and total costs. b. total costs only. c. total fixed cost only. d. total variable costs only 19 A firm will shut down in the short run if: a. fixed costs exceed revenues. b. total costs exceed revenues. c. it is suffering a loss. d. variable costs exceed revenues. 20 In the long run, every cost is variable cost. In this period, all costs ever incurred by the firm must be recovered. (a)True (b) False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (d) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (d) 11(a) 12(a) 13(a) 16(b) 17(b) 18(a) (d) 9 (d) 14(a) 19(d) 5 (a) 10 (b) 15(b) 20(a) Chapter-12 PERFECT COMPETITION 1. A perfectly competitive firm will maximize profit at the quantity at which the firms marginal revenue equals a. price b. average revenue c. total cost d. marginal cost 2 Which of the following is not a valid option for a perfectly competitive firm? a. Increasing its output. b. Decreasing its output. c. Increasing its price. d. Increasing its resources. 3 In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all but which of the following: a. Economic profit b. Allocative Efficiency c. Productive Efficiency d. Normal profit 4 If the price a firm receives for its product is equal to the marginal cost of producing that product, the firm is: a. Always earning an economic profit b. Always productively efficient. c. Always allocatively efficient. d. Always experiencing an economic loss. 5 A firm that is producing at the lowest possible average cost is always: a. Earning an economic profit. b. Productively efficient. c. Dominating the other firms in the market. d. Not producing enough output. 6 Which of the following is the best example of a perfectly competitive market? a. diamonds b. athletic shoes c. soft drinks d. arming 7 Perfect competition is an industry with a. a few firms producing identical goods. b. many firms producing goods that differ somewhat. c. a few firms producing goods that differ somewhat in quality. d. many firms producing identical goods. 8 In a perfectly competitive industry, there are a. many buyers and many sellers. b. many sellers, but there might be only one or two bu yers. c. many buyers, but there might be only one or two sellers. d. one firm that sets the price for the others to follow. 9 In perfect competition, the product of a single firm a. is sold to different customers at different prices. b. as many perfect complements produced by other firms. c. has many perfect substitutes produced by other firms. d. is sold under many differing brand names. 10 In perfect competition, restrictions on entry into an industry a. do not exist. b. apply to labor but not to capital. c. apply to both capital and labor. d. apply to capital but not to labor. 11 Price for a firm under monopolistic competition is ______. a. equal to marginal revenue b. greater than marginal revenue c. less than marginal revenue d. greater than total revenue 12 In the long run, monopolistically competitive firms tend to experience ______. a. high economic profits b. ero economic profits c. negative economic profits d. substantial economic losses 13 Marginal revenue for a monopolis t is ______ a. equal to price b. greater than price c. less than price d. equal to average revenue 14 Perfect competitions describes a market structure whose assumptions are extremely strong and highly unlikely to exist in most real-time and real-world markets. (a)True (b) False 15 Monopolistic competition is a market structure characterized by a large number of relatively small firms. (a)True (b) False 16 A monopolist can sell more of his output only at a lower price and can reduce the sale at a high price. a)True (b) False 17 A monopoly is a market structure in which there is not only one producer/seller for a product. (a)True (b) False 18 A perfectly competitive firm produces the profit-maximizing quantity of output that equates marginal revenue and marginal cost. (a)True (b) False 19 A perfectly competitive firm faces †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. production alternatives based on a comparison of price, average total cost, and average variable cost. a. four short-run b. three short-run c. five short-run d. All of these 20 A perfectly competitive firm’s marginal cost curve that lies above the †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. of the average variable cost curve is its supply curve. . minimum b. maximum c. both(a) and (b) d. None of these Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (a) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(b) 13(a) 16(b) 17(b) 18(a) 4 (c) 9 (c) 14(a) 19(b) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(a) 20(a) Chapter-13 OLIGOPOLY AND PRICING STRATEGIES 1 A price- and quantity-fixing agreement is known as: a. game theory. b. price leadership. c. collusion. d. price concentration. 2 A group of firms that gets together to make price and output decisions is called: a. a cartel. b. price leadership. c. an oligopoly. d. a concentrated industry 3 Products produced by oligopolistic ? rms are: a. Homogeneous. b. Heterogeneous. . Differentiated. d. Heterogeneous or differentiated. 3 Oligopoly is the only market structure characterized by: a. Interdependence in pricing and output decisions. b. Differentiated products. c. Barriers to entry. d. Pro? t-maximizing behavior. 4 Oligopoly is characterized by all of the following except: a. A few large ? rms. b. Differentiated product. c. Difficult entry into the industry. d. Price competition 5 A major threat to longer term profits exists when barriers to entry into an industry are high. (a)True (b) False 6 Under kinked demand theory the prices of oligopolists are predicted to be rather rigid or sticky. a)True (b) False 7 In contestable markets, large oligopolistic firms end up behaving like: a. a monopoly. b. monopolistically competitive firms. c. a cartel. d. perfectly competitive firms 8 Which of the following types of oligopoly competition would you expect to result in the highest market output, other things equal? a. b. c. d. Stackelberg. Bertrand. Cornet. Collusion 9 The demand curve has a kink at the price which is equal to full cost price. (a) True (b) False 10. An pro? t maximizing, oligopolistic firms produces at an ou tput level where: a. P = ATC. b. MR = MC. c. MR = ATC. d. AVC gt; MR. e. P = MR 11 Cartels are most likely to arise in which of the following market structures? a. Perfect competition. b. Monopolistic Competition. c. Oligopoly. d. Monopoly. 12 A cartel is a formal collusive organization of the oligopoly firms in an industry. (a) True (b) False 13 Needs such as training the group, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing sub-leaders may be called: a. team functions. b. work functions. c. individual functions. d. task functions. 14 The Hall and flitch model of the kinked demand curve is based on an empirical survey of a sample of 38 well managed arms in England. a) True (b) False 15 The model uses the analytical tools of reaction functions of the duopolists derived on the basis of is not profit curves. (a) True (b) False 16 The important models of non-collusive oligopoly are: (a) Cournot model, (b) Kinked Oligopoly demand curve models. (a) True (b) False 17 Which of the following is not an operations strategy? a. response b. low-cost lea dership c. differentiation d. technology 18 Which of the following is not one of the leadership styles identified in House’s pathgoal theory? a. Participative. b. Employee-centered. c. Directive. d. Achievement-oriented. 9 The petroleum industry is an example of a. monopolistic competition. b. pure oligopoly. c. duopoly. d. differentiated oligopoly. 20 The kinked demand curve model assumes that a. firms match price increases, but not price cuts. b. demand is more elastic for price cuts than for price increases. c. changes in marginal cost can never lead to changes in market price. d. None of the above is correct. Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (b) 11(b) 12(c) 13(a) 16(a) 17(d) 18(b) 4 (a) 9 (b) 14(a) 19(b) 5 (d) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(d) Chapter-14 PROFIT ANALYSIS 1. A variable cost is a cost that a. varies per unit at every level of activity b. occurs at various times during the year c. varies in total in proportion to changes in the level of activity d. may not be incurred, depending on managements discretion 2. A cost which remains constant per unit at various levels of activity is a a. variable cost b. fixed cost c. mixed cost d. manufacturing cost 3. A fixed cost is a cost which a. varies in total with changes in the level of activity b. remains constant per unit with changes in the level of activity c. varies inversely in total with changes in the level of activity d. emains constant in total with changes in the level of activity 4. Cost behavior analysis is a study of how a firms costs a. relate to competitors costs b. relate to general price level changes c. respond to changes in activity levels within the company d. respond to changes in the gross national product 5. Cost behavior analysis applies to a. retailers b. wholesalers c. manufa cturers d. all entities 6. The relevant range of activity refers to the a. geographical areas where the company plans to operate b. activity level where all costs are curvilinear c. levels of activity over which the company expects to operate d. evel of activity where all costs are constant 7. Which of the following is not a plausible explanation of why variable costs often behave in a curvilinear fashion? a. Labor specialization b. Overtime wages c. Total variable costs are constant within the relevant range d. Availability of quantity discounts 8. Firms operating constantly at 100% capacity a. are common b. are the exception rather than the rule c. have no fixed costs d. have no variable costs 9. Which one of the following is a name for the range over which a company expects to operate? a. Mixed range b. Fixed range c. Variable range d. Relevant range 10 The graph of variable costs that behave in a curvilinear fashion will a. approximate a straight line within the relevant range b. be sharply kinked on both sides of the relevant range c. be downward sloping d. be a stair-step pattern 11. A mixed cost contains a. a variable cost element and a fixed cost element b. both selling and administrative costs c. both retailing and manufacturing costs d. both operating and non-operating costs 12. The variable costing method is also known as the direct costing method indirect costing approach absorption costing method period costing approach 13. The costing approach that charges all manufacturing costs to the product is referred to as a. variable costing b. contribution margin costing c. direct costing d. absorption costing 14. Variable costing is acceptable for a. financial statement purposes b. profit tax purposes c. internal use by management only d. profit tax purposes and for internal use by management 15. CVP analysis does not consider a. level of activity b. fixed cost per unit c. variable cost per unit d. sales mix 16. Which of the following is not an underlying assumption of CVP analysis? a. Changes in activity are the only factors that affect costs b. Cost classifications are reasonably accurate c. Beginning inventory is larger than ending inventory d. Sales mix is constant 17. Which of the following would not be an acceptable way to express contribution margin? a. Sales minus variable costs b. Sales minus unit costs a. b. c. d. c. d. Unit selling price minus unit variable costs Contribution margin per unit divided by unit selling price a. b. c. d. 18. The level of activity at which total revenues equal total costs is the variable point fixed point semi-variable point break-even point 19. The break-even point is where a. otal sales equals total variable costs b. contribution margin equals total fixed costs c. total variable costs equal total fixed costs d. total sales equals total fixed costs 20. Gross profit also includes rent that arises from the entrepreneur’s own land used in his production of output. a. True b. False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 5. (d) 12. (a) 19. (b) 6. (c) 13. (d) 20. (a) Chapter-15 1. There are †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. methods which can be used to appraise any investment project: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 2. National income is the total of the value of the goods and the services which are produced in an economy. (a) True (b) False 3. Which two of the following are likely to raise the equilibrium value of National Income? (a) Rise in savings. (b) Rise in imports. (c) Rise in government spending. (d) Rise in exports. 4. Which two of the following are excluded when measuring National Income? (a) Value added in the output method. (b) Value of intermediate inputs in the output method. (c) Consumer spending in the expenditure method. (d) Transfer payments in the income method. 5. The return on an investment comes in the form of a stream of earnings in the future. (a) True (b) False 6. Cost-benefit analysis is a process for evaluating the merits of a particular project or course of action in a systematic and rigorous way. (a) True ` (b) False 7. ‘Real’ investment is not (a) the amount that shareholders are willing to provide for shares in a company (b) the cost of development of a new product (c) expenditure on public relations, staff training or research and development (d) expenditure on non-current assets such as plant, machinery, land and buildings 8. Which of the following statements about IRR and NPV is not correct? (a) NPV always gives the correct investment decision. (b) IRR gives an unreliable answer with non-conventional projects. (c) IRR can accommodate changes in the cost of capital. (d) IRR is a useful relative measure if comparing projects of differing sizes. 9. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total market value of all final goods and services currently produced within the domestic territory of a country in a year. (a) True (b) False 10. Which of the following will not be a relevant factor when using the payback method of capital investment appraisal? a) The timing of the first cash inflow (b) The total cash flows generated by the asset (c) The cash flows generated by the asset up to the payback period (d) The cost of the asset 11. Why the payback method is often considered inferior to discounted cash flow in capital investment appraisal? (a) I is more difficult to calculate (b) It does not calculate how long it will take to recoup the money invested (c) It does not take account of the time value of money (d) It only takes into account the future income of a project 12. Gross National Product is the total market value of all final goods and services produced in a year. (a) True (b) False 13. In 2005†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. was the least significant liability of U. S. nonfinancial businesses in terms of total value. (a) bonds and mortgages (b) bank loans (c) inventories (d) trade debt 14. †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. are examples of financial intermediaries. (a) Commercial banks (b) Insurance companies (c) Investment companies (d) All of the above 15. Financial assets †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. a) directly contribute to the countrys productive capacity (b) indirectly contribute to the countrys productive capacity (c) contribute to the countrys productive capacity both directly and indirectly (d) do not contribute to the countrys productive capacity either directly or indirectly 16. The means by which individuals hold their claims on real assets in a welldevelopedeconomy are (a) investment assets. (b) depository assets. (c) derivative assets (d) financia l assets 17. Capital budgeting is the process of evaluating and selecting long-term investments that are consistent with the goal of the firm. a) True (b) False 18. Although derivatives can be used as speculative instruments, businesses most often use them to (a) attract customers. (b) appease stockholders. (c) offset debt. (d) hedge 19. The investment in fixed assets increases the fixed cost of the firm which must be recovered from the benefit of the same project. (a)True (b) False 20. National Income is defined as the sum total of all the goods and services produced in a country, in a particular period of time. (a) True (b) False Answer 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a) Chapter-16 1. In period of inflation, phantom or paper profits may be reports as a result of using the: (a) FIFO costing assumption (b) Perpetual inventory method (c) LIDO costing assumption (d) Perio dic inventory method 2. Inflation is: (a) an increase in the overall price level. (b) an increase in the overall level of economic activity. (c) a decrease in the overall level of economic activity. (d) a decrease in the overall price level. 3. Aggregate supply is the total amount: (a) produced by the government. (b) of goods and services produced in an economy. c) of labour supplied by all households. (d) of products produced by a given industry. 4. The value of a dollar does not stay constant when there is inflation. (a) True (b) False 5. The inflation rate in India was recorded at 7. 23% in†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ (a) April of 2009 (b) April of 2010 (c) April of 2011 (d) April of 2012 6. The function of money that helps assess the opportunity cost of an activity is moneys use as a (a) medium of exchange. (b) store of value. (c) unit of account. (d) store of debt. 7. An official measure of money in the United States is M1, which consists of the sum of (a) currency plus travelers checks. b) currency plus checkable deposits. (c) currency plus travelers checks plus checkable deposits. (d) currency plus travelers checks plus time deposits. 8. Implies no trade-off between unemployment and inflation. (a) GDP deflator (b) Shoe leather’ costs (c) Long-run Phillips curve (d) ‘Menu’ costs 9. The inflation rate is used to calculate the real interest rate, as well as real increases in wages. (a) True (b) False 10†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ the quantity of money in the United States. (a) The State Department controls (b) The Department of Treasury controls (c) The Federal Reserve System controls (d) Commercial banks control 11. There are broadly †¦.. ways of controlling inflation in an economy. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 12. The balance of payments of a country is said to be in equilibrium when the demand for foreign exchange in exactly equivalent to the supply of it. (a) True (b) False 13. A general decline in prices is often caused by a reduction in the supply of†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. (a) money or debit (b) money or credit (c) money (d) None of these 14. The opportunity cost of holding money is the (a) inflation rate minus the nominal interest rate. (b) nominal interest rate. (c) real interest rate. (d) unemployment rate. 15. If the Fed is worried about inflation and wants to raise the interest rate, it (a) increases the demand for money. (b) increases the supply of money. (c) decreases the demand for money. (d) decreases the supply of money. 16. The circular flow of goods and incomes shows the relationship between: (a) income and money. (b) goods and services. (c) firms and households. (d) wages and salaries. 17. Fiscal measures to control inflation include taxation, government expenditure and public borrowings. (a) True (b) False 18. Hyperinflation (a) occurs in the United States during each business cycle. b) occurs only in theory, never in reality. (c) has never occurred in the United States. (d) happens in all countries at some time during their business cycle. 19. Hyperinflation refers to a situation where the prices rise at an alarming high rate. (a) True (b) False 20. The inflation rate is used to calculate the real interest rate, as well as real increases in wages. (a)True (b) False Answer 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a)